Let f:R→R be defined by f(x)=x^2. f is injective or surjective?

Consider the function \( f: \mathbb{R} \to \mathbb{R} \) defined by \( f(x) = x^2 \). Determine whether \( f \) is One-to-one (injective) or Onto (surjective). Justify your answers. Here, \( \mathbb{R} \) represents the set of all real numbers.

Solution:

  • One-to-one (Injective)?

A function is One-to-one (injective) if \( f(a) = f(b) \implies a = b \)

Take \( a = 1 \) and \( b = -1 \):
Then, \( f(1) = (1)^2 = 1 \quad \text{and} \quad f(-1) = (-1)^2 = 1 \).
Here, \( f(1) = f(-1) \) but \( 1 \neq -1 \).

Thus, \( f \) is not One-to-one (injective) because different inputs map to the same output.

  • Onto (Surjective)?

A function is Onto (Surjective) if for every \( y \in \mathbb{R} \), there exists \( x \in \mathbb{R} \) such that: \( f(x) = y \).
Let \( y = -1 \). We check if there exists \( x \in \mathbb{R} \) satisfying \( x^2 = -1 \). But \( x^2 \geq 0 \) for all real \( x \), so no solution exists.

Thus, \( f \) is not surjective because negative numbers (e.g., \( y = -1 \)) have no corresponding element in the domain \( x \in \mathbb{R} \).

Therefore, the function \( f(x) = x^2 \) (with domain and codomain \( \mathbb{R} ) \) is neither injective nor surjective.

Please let me know in the comments if you find any errors in this solution.

Leave a Reply

Your email address will not be published. Required fields are marked *

This site uses Akismet to reduce spam. Learn how your comment data is processed.